From: Hyonseok Hwang (danggi_at_northwestern.edu)
Date: Sun Feb 08 2004 - 22:31:39 CST
Is the langevin coupling coefficient (langevinDamping) equivalent to the
temperature coupling coefficient in Berendsen's method? Namely, my
question is whether I should put the same number, 2.5 in the langevin
coupling coefficient if I use 2.5 (1/0.4ps) as temperature coupling
coefficient in the Berendsen's method.
Thanks a lot!
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